200 Marketing, branding, and sales questions with answer
1. What is the primary goal of marketing?
A) Increase production
B) Maximize profits only
C) Satisfy customer needs
D) Lower costs
Correct Answer: C) Satisfy customer needs
2. Which of the following is a part of the marketing mix (4Ps)?
A) People
B) Production
C) Place
D) Process
Correct Answer: C) Place
3. Market segmentation is the process of:
A) Creating new markets
B) Dividing the market into distinct groups
C) Merging similar products
D) Standardizing products
Correct Answer: B) Dividing the market into distinct groups
4. What does CRM stand for in marketing?
A) Customer Resource Management
B) Customer Relationship Management
C) Consumer Retail Marketing
D) Central Retail Management
Correct Answer: B) Customer Relationship Management
5. The 4Ps of marketing are Product, Price, Place, and:
A) Packaging
B) Planning
C) Promotion
D) People
Correct Answer: C) Promotion
6. A brand is defined as:
A) A new product
B) A company’s CEO
C) A name, term, symbol, or design
D) A manufacturing plant
Correct Answer: C) A name, term, symbol, or design
7. Which type of marketing focuses on building long-term customer relationships?
A) Direct marketing
B) Relationship marketing
C) Mass marketing
D) Telemarketing
Correct Answer: B) Relationship marketing
8. A SWOT analysis evaluates:
A) Sales figures
B) Employee performance
C) Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats
D) Production cost
Correct Answer: C) Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats
9. Which one is a pricing strategy?
A) Differentiation
B) Skimming
C) Diversification
D) Franchising
Correct Answer: B) Skimming
10. What does B2B marketing refer to?
A) Business to Buyer
B) Brand to Brand
C) Business to Business
D) Buy to Buy
Correct Answer: C) Business to Business
11. Viral marketing is aimed at:
A) Decreasing customer base
B) Personal selling
C) Spreading messages quickly
D) Segmenting markets
Correct Answer: C) Spreading messages quickly
12. A product life cycle includes all of the following stages EXCEPT
A) Introduction
B) Growth
C) Retirement
D) Decline
Correct Answer: C) Retirement
13. Which of the following best defines target marketing?
A) Selling to everyone
B) Advertising on social media
C) Focusing on specific market segments
D) Setting high prices
Correct Answer: C) Focusing on specific market segments
14. What is positioning in marketing?
A) Deciding product price
B) Placing a product in the warehouse
C) Creating a distinct image in the consumer’s mind
D) Finding suppliers
Correct Answer: C) Creating a distinct image in the consumer’s mind
15. Digital marketing includes:
A) TV ads
B) Newspaper ads
C) Social media marketing
D) Outdoor advertising
Correct Answer: C) Social media marketing
16. Which of the following is a promotion tool?
A) Logistics
B) Advertising
C) Pricing
D) Inventory
Correct Answer: B) Advertising
17. Market research helps in:
A) Producing goods
B) Hiring staff
C) Understanding customer needs
D) Building infrastructure
Correct Answer: C) Understanding customer needs
18. Which of these is an example of indirect distribution?
A) Manufacturer to customer
B) Manufacturer to retailer to customer
C) Manufacturer to supplier
D) Manufacturer to wholesaler to warehouse
Correct Answer: B) Manufacturer to retailer to customer
19. What is brand equity?
A) Cost of branding
B) Customer loyalty to a brand
C) Profit from the product
D) Stock price
Correct Answer: B) Customer loyalty to a brand
20. The act of selling products in a foreign country at less than fair value is called:
A) Exporting
B) Licensing
C) Dumping
D) Globalization
Correct Answer: C) Dumping
21. In Porter’s Five Forces model, which force refers to the impact of new companies entering the market?
A) Threat of substitutes
B) Threat of new entrants
C) Bargaining power of suppliers
D) Industry rivalry
Correct Answer: B) Threat of new entrants
22. The concept of “positioning map” is primarily used to:
A) Show product pricing
B) Analyze internal operations
C) Compare customer satisfaction
D) Visualize consumers’ perceptions of brands
Correct Answer: D) Visualize consumers’ perceptions of brands
23. A niche marketing strategy targets:
A) All market segments
B) A large segment
C) A small, specific segment
D) Multiple broad categories
Correct Answer: C) A small, specific segment
24. The AIDA model in marketing stands for:
A) Attention, Interest, Demand, Action
B) Attention, Interest, Desire, Action
C) Awareness, Information, Decision, Analysis
D) Action, Integration, Design, Awareness
Correct Answer: B) Attention, Interest, Desire, Action
25. The Boston Consulting Group (BCG) matrix categorizes products based on:
A) Brand loyalty and customer satisfaction
B) Market share and market growth
C) Product quality and pricing
D) Competitor analysis
Correct Answer: B) Market share and market growth
26. What is the main focus of value-based pricing?
A) Manufacturing costs
B) Competitor pricing
C) Customer’s perceived value
D) Government regulations
Correct Answer: C) Customer’s perceived value
27. A push strategy in marketing focuses on:
A) Pulling customers through advertising
B) Building brand awareness only
C) Pushing the product through distribution channels
D) Cutting marketing expenses
Correct Answer: C) Pushing the product through distribution channels
28. In behavioral segmentation, customers are grouped based on:
A) Age and gender
B) Location and lifestyle
C) Usage rate and buying behavior
D) Religion and income
Correct Answer: C) Usage rate and buying behavior
29. Which pricing strategy sets a low initial price to penetrate the market quickly and deeply?
A) Price skimming
B) Penetration pricing
C) Dynamic pricing
D) Bundle pricing
Correct Answer: B) Penetration pricing
30. In the PLC (Product Life Cycle), profits are typically highest in the:
A) Introduction stage
B) Growth stage
C) Maturity stage
D) Decline stage
Correct Answer: B) Growth stage
31. What is “brand extension”?
A) Changing the brand name
B) Launching a new brand
C) Using an existing brand name for new products
D) Selling the brand to another company
Correct Answer: C) Using an existing brand name for new products
32. Integrated Marketing Communication (IMC) aims to:
A) Create fragmented messages
B) Lower prices across channels
C) Deliver consistent messaging across all marketing channels
D) Focus only on digital advertising
Correct Answer: C) Deliver consistent messaging across all marketing channels
33. Which concept advocates that a company should meet the needs of present consumers without compromising future generations?
A) Product orientation
B) Societal marketing concept
C) Sales concept
D) Relationship marketing
Correct Answer: B) Societal marketing concept
34. What is the primary characteristic of service marketing that differentiates it from product marketing?
A) Standardization
B) Tangibility
C) Intangibility
D) Inventory cost
Correct Answer: C) Intangibility
35. Which method is used to determine a customer’s Net Promoter Score (NPS)?
A) Customer lifetime value analysis
B) Asking how likely a customer is to recommend the company
C) Sales tracking
D) A/B testing
Correct Answer: B) Asking how likely a customer is to recommend the company
36. What is a laggard in the diffusion of innovation theory?
A) An early adopter of new ideas
B) A person who resists change
C) A market leader
D) An influencer in niche segments
Correct Answer: B) A person who resists change
37. Which of the following is an example of secondary data in marketing research?
A) Survey results
B) Focus group feedback
C) Company sales reports
D) Industry reports from external sources
Correct Answer: D) Industry reports from external sources
38. The term “blue ocean strategy” refers to:
A) Entering saturated markets
B) Competing in existing markets
C) Creating new demand in an uncontested market space
D) Reducing prices to win market share
Correct Answer: C) Creating new demand in an uncontested market space
39. Which metric best indicates customer retention?
A) Conversion rate
B) Bounce rate
C) Churn rate
D) Reach
Correct Answer: C) Churn rate
40. What does brand cannibalization refer to?
A) Expanding product lines
B) Losing customers to a new brand from the same company
C) Buying out competitors
D) Offering too many product options
Correct Answer: B) Losing customers to a new brand from the same company
41. In SEO, which of the following is considered an "off-page" factor?
A) Page load speed
B) Meta description
C) Backlinks
D) Image alt text
Correct Answer: C) Backlinks
42. What does the "Quality Score" in Google Ads primarily depend on?
A) Ad spend
B) Ad impressions
C) Expected CTR, ad relevance, and landing page experience
D) Keyword popularity
Correct Answer: C) Expected CTR, ad relevance, and landing page experience
43. In brand equity models, which one is developed by Kevin Lane Keller?
A) Brand Resonance Model
B) Brand Asset Valuator
C) Aaker’s Brand Equity Model
D) Brand Pyramid
Correct Answer: A) Brand Resonance Model
44. The term “programmatic advertising” refers to:
A) Paid influencer campaigns
B) Automated buying of digital ad space using software
C) Creating ads through user-generated content
D) Buying ads on TV
Correct Answer: B) Automated buying of digital ad space using software
45. In strategic marketing, the Ansoff Matrix is used for:
A) Industry analysis
B) Product pricing
C) Growth strategy planning
D) SWOT analysis
Correct Answer: C) Growth strategy planning
46. What does CPM stand for in digital advertising?
A) Cost per Member
B) Cost per Minute
C) Cost per Mile
D) Cost per Thousand Impressions
Correct Answer: D) Cost per Thousand Impressions
47. In Keller’s Brand Resonance Model, the highest level of brand equity is:
A) Brand awareness
B) Brand performance
C) Brand resonance
D) Brand imagery
Correct Answer: C) Brand resonance
48. A brand’s archetype refers to:
A) Its pricing model
B) The CEO’s vision
C) A symbolic persona or identity based on human behavior
D) Its visual logo
Correct Answer: C) A symbolic persona or identity based on human behavior
49. What is the core metric to track user behavior flow on a website in Google Analytics?
A) Session duration
B) Bounce rate
C) Conversion funnel
D) Behavior Flow Report
Correct Answer: D) Behavior Flow Report
50. “Customer Lifetime Value (CLV)” helps businesses:
A) Reduce customer complaints
B) Maximize one-time sales
C) Estimate future revenue from a customer
D) Improve customer service
Correct Answer: C) Estimate future revenue from a customer
51. The ZMET technique in market research is used to:
A) Conduct focus groups
B) Understand subconscious customer thoughts through imagery
C) Analyze pricing elasticity
D) Develop product prototypes
Correct Answer: B) Understand subconscious customer thoughts through imagery
52. A house of brands strategy is characterized by:
A) One master brand across all products
B) Individual brands under a parent company with separate identities
C) Regional branding
D) Celebrity endorsements
Correct Answer: B) Individual brands under a parent company with separate identities
53. What is the purpose of remarketing in digital campaigns?
A) Attract new customers
B) Reach users who previously visited your site
C) Display product prices
D) Send newsletters
Correct Answer: B) Reach users who previously visited your site
54. Which KPI is most relevant for measuring email marketing effectiveness?
A) Page views
B) Bounce rate
C) Open rate
D) Click-through rate (CTR)
Correct Answer: D) Click-through rate (CTR)
55. A key risk of an aggressive discount-based pricing strategy is:
A) Brand dilution
B) Customer loyalty
C) Increased brand equity
D) Market expansion
Correct Answer: A) Brand dilution
56. What is a lookalike audience in Facebook Ads?
A) A group with similar behaviors to your existing customers
B) A new competitor’s target segment
C) A customer feedback group
D) Your highest-spending audience
Correct Answer: A) A group with similar behaviors to your existing customers
57. Which digital strategy involves leveraging others’ content and audience to promote a brand?
A) Paid media
B) Owned media
C) Earned media
D) Shared media
Correct Answer: C) Earned media
58. In brand valuation, Interbrand evaluates brands based on:
A) Sales and supply chain
B) Financial performance, role of brand, and brand strength
C) Packaging and pricing
D) Advertising cost
Correct Answer: B) Financial performance, role of brand, and brand strength
59. “Dark social” in digital marketing refers to:
A) Black hat SEO
B) Paid ads on shady websites
C) Social sharing via private channels (e.g., messaging apps)
D) Content with violent themes
Correct Answer: C) Social sharing via private channels (e.g., messaging apps)
60. The “Challenger Brand” strategy is best described as:
A) Dominating with low west prices
B) Following the market leader’s path
C) Aggressively disrupting market norms to challenge the leader
D) Maintaining the status quo
Correct Answer: C) Aggressively disrupting market norms to challenge the leader
61. In consumer behavior, the term “cognitive dissonance” refers to:
A) Loyalty toward multiple brands
B) Uncertainty after making a purchase
C) Emotional buying behavior
D) Changing a product due to quality issues
Correct Answer: B) Uncertainty after making a purchase
62. What is “glocalization” in marketing?
A) Expanding without localization
B) Global strategy without cultural consideration
C) Adapting global products to local markets
D) Focusing only on domestic markets
Correct Answer: C) Adapting global products to local markets
63. The decoy effect in pricing strategy is used to:
A) Introduce discounts
B) Make one option appear more attractive by adding a third, less appealing one
C) Equalize product offerings
D) Increase perceived product quality
Correct Answer: B) Make one option appear more attractive by adding a third, less appealing one
64. Which of the following is a lagging indicator in marketing performance metrics?
A) Website bounce rate
B) Marketing spend
C) Customer acquisition cost
D) Revenue growth
Correct Answer: D) Revenue growth
65. In international marketing, ethnocentric orientation means:
A) Belief that foreign markets are superior
B) Treating all markets as the same as the home market
C) Customizing for each market
D) Prioritizing customer needs in foreign markets
Correct Answer: B) Treating all markets as the same as the home market
66. Which pricing strategy adjusts prices frequently based on real-time demand and supply?
A) Premium pricing
B) Bundle pricing
C) Dynamic pricing
D) Cost-plus pricing
Correct Answer: C) Dynamic pricing
67. In marketing analytics, an “RFM” analysis assesses:
A) Reach, Frequency, Margin
B) Recency, Frequency, Monetary value
C) Revenue, Forecasting, Metrics
D) Relevance, Feedback, Motivation
Correct Answer: B) Recency, Frequency, Monetary value
68. What does share of voice measure in digital marketing?
A) Brand’s profit margin
B) Portion of advertising presence compared to competitors
C) Sales from social media
D) Organic traffic to paid traffic ratio
Correct Answer: B) Portion of advertising presence compared to competitors
69. What is **brand salience** in the context of brand equity?
A) Emotional value of a brand
B) Visual appeal of the logo
C) Degree to which a brand is thought of or noticed
D) Consistency of social media content
Correct Answer: C) Degree to which a brand is thought of or noticed
70. Which concept suggests that 80% of effects come from 20% of causes in marketing?
A) Law of Supply
B) Pareto Principle
C) AIDA Model
D) Diffusion of Innovation
Correct Answer: B) Pareto Principle
71. Which of these is a psychographic variable in segmentation?
A) Gender
B) Age
C) Income
D) Lifestyle
Correct Answer: D) Lifestyle
72. In customer journey mapping, “touchpoints” are:
A) Customer pain points
B) Marketing employees
C) Moments of interaction between the customer and the brand
D) Advertising budgets
Correct Answer: C) Moments of interaction between customer and brand
73. Which strategy focuses on launching a new product in an existing market (Ansoff Matrix)?
A) Diversification
B) Market development
C) Market penetration
D) Product development
Correct Answer: D) Product development**
74. A “value proposition” is:
A) A marketing slogan
B) The perceived benefits vs. costs offered to customers
C) A financial discount
D) A public relations statement
Correct Answer: B) The perceived benefits vs. costs offered to customers
75. Which of the following best describes experiential marketing?
A) Marketing through TV only
B) Creating passive advertising content
C) Directly engaging customers in branded experiences
D) Sending mass emails
Correct Answer: C) Directly engaging customers in branded experiences
76. A company that sells the same product at different prices in different segments is using:
A) Psychological pricing
B) Cost-plus pricing
C) Price discrimination
D) Every day low pricing
Correct Answer: C) Price discrimination
77. In customer relationship management (CRM), churn rate measures:
A) New customer acquisition
B) Email campaign click rate
C) Rate at which customers stop doing business with the company
D) Employee turnover
Correct Answer: C) Rate at which customers stop doing business with the company
78. What is the main advantage of persona-based marketing?
A) Increases operational efficiency
B) Reduces ad costs
C) Improves message personalization for target segments
D) Focuses only on demographics
Correct Answer: C) Improves message personalization for target segments
79. What is a micro-moment in digital consumer behavior?
A) A viral trend
B) A time-limited product offer
C) An intent-rich moment when a consumer turns to a device to act
D) A celebrity endorsement
Correct Answer: C) An intent-rich moment when a consumer turns to a device to act
80. In a B2B context, derived demand means:
A) Demand that fluctuates with seasons
B) Demand based on business buyers' needs is influenced by consumer demand
C) Unpredictable Demand
D) Demand from government tenders
Correct Answer: B) Demand based on business buyers' needs is influenced by consumer demand
81. What is the main goal of marketing?
A) To increase profits only
B) To produce quality products
C) To satisfy customer needs profitably
D) To reduce advertising costs
Correct Answer: C) To satisfy customer needs profitably
82. Which of the following is a part of the marketing mix?
A) Plan
B) People
C) Product
D) Process
Correct Answer: C) Product
83. Market segmentation divides the market based on:
A) Employee roles
B) Competitor pricing
C) Customer characteristics
D) Supplier needs
Correct Answer: C) Customer characteristics
84. Which element of the marketing mix refers to how the product gets to the customer?
A) Product
B) Price
C) Promotion
D) Place
Correct Answer: D) Place
85. A brand is:
A) A business strategy
B) A product’s utility
C) A name, symbol, or design that identifies a product
D) A quality check
Correct Answer: C) A name, symbol, or design that identifies a product
86. Which of the following is a type of promotion?
A) Warehousing
B) Personal selling
C) Market research
D) Pricing
Correct Answer: B) Personal selling
87. A “target market” is:
A) Any market available
B) All consumers
C) The specific group a company aims to serve
D) The company’s internal staff
Correct Answer: C) The specific group a company aims to serve
88. Which of these is a psychographic variable?
A) Income
B) Gender
C) Lifestyle
D) Location
Correct Answer: C) Lifestyle
89. Which of the following is an advantage of digital marketing?
A) Less reach
B) Hard to measure
C) High cost
D) Real-time results
Correct Answer: D) Real-time results
90. A product in the maturity stage of the product life cycle is likely to:
A) Have increasing profits
B) Face declining sales
C) Face strong competition
D) Be newly launched
Correct Answer: C) Face strong competition
91. SWOT analysis is used to assess:
A) Suppliers
B) Only internal factors
C) Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats
D) Only financial data
Correct Answer: C) Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats
92. Which of the following is an example of a convenience product?
A) Car
B) Refrigerator
C) Toothpaste
D) House
Correct Answer: C) Toothpaste
93. What is “brand loyalty”?
A) Trying multiple brands
B) Frequently changing products
C) Preferring and repurchasing a specific brand
D) Comparing brands without purchase
Correct Answer: C) Preferring and repurchasing a specific brand
94. Which of the following is a channel of distribution?
A) Facebook
B) Wholesaler
C) Researcher
D) Engineer
Correct Answer: B) Wholesaler
95. The 4 Ps of marketing are Product, Price, Place, and:
A) Plan
B) Promotion
C) People
D) Positioning
Correct Answer: B) Promotion
96. Which type of pricing strategy sets prices based on competitors?
A) Penetration pricing
B) Skimming pricing
C) Competitive pricing
D) Cost-plus pricing
Correct Answer: C) Competitive pricing
97. Direct marketing involves:
A) Selling only to retailers
B) Using intermediaries
C) Contacting customers directly
D) Mass communication only
Correct Answer: C) Contacting customers directly
98. Advertising is part of:
A) Product
B) Place
C) Promotion
D) Price
Correct Answer: C) Promotion
99. A “niche market” is:
A) A large, general market
B) A market with no competition
C) A small, specific segment of the market
D) An internal business unit
Correct Answer: C) A small, specific segment of the market
100. CRM stands for:
A) Customer Referral Management
B) Corporate Risk Management
C) Customer Relationship Management
D) Company Resource Management
Correct Answer: C) Customer Relationship Management
101. In the marketing funnel, which stage comes before conversion?
A) Loyalty
B) Awareness
C) Consideration
D) Advocacy
Correct Answer: C) Consideration
102. Which of the following is not part of the product life cycle?
A) Introduction
B) Launch
C) Decline
D) Growth
Correct Answer: B) Launch
103. Consumer buying behavior influenced by friends and family is called:
A) Economic factor
B) Cultural factor
C) Psychological factor
D) Social factor
Correct Answer: D) Social factor
104. The BCG matrix includes stars, cash cows, dogs, and:
A) Questions
B) Heroes
C) Marks
D) Question marks
Correct Answer: D) Question marks
105. The term “USP” stands for:
A) Unique Selling Product
B) Universal Service Policy
C) Unique Selling Proposition
D) Useful Service Point
Correct Answer: C) Unique Selling Proposition
106. Which type of marketing is based on customer experiences and emotions?
A) Relationship marketing
B) Experiential marketing
C) Mass marketing
D) Transactional marketing
Correct Answer: B) Experiential marketing
107. Market skimming pricing involves:
A) Offering products for free
B) Charging low prices to gain market share
C) Setting high initial prices
D) Matching competitors’ prices
Correct Answer: C) Setting high initial prices
108. What is viral marketing?
A) TV advertising
B) Promotion through retail stores
C) Online content is spreading quickly
D) Billboards and posters
Correct Answer: C) Online content is spreading quickly
109. In segmentation, dividing a market based on age and gender is:
A) Behavioral segmentation
B) Psychographic segmentation
C) Demographic segmentation
D) Geographic segmentation
Correct Answer: C) Demographic segmentation
110. Loyalty programs are designed to:
A) Increase product cost
B) Attract new customers
C) Retain existing customers
D) Improve packaging
Correct Answer: C) Retain existing customers
111. What is “positioning” in marketing?
A) Placing products on store shelves
B) Creating a unique image of the product in the consumer’s mind
C) Designing a pricing strategy
D) Selecting a target market
Correct Answer: B) Creating a unique image of the product in the consumer’s mind
112. Which metric best measures brand awareness in digital marketing?
A) Conversion rate
B) Bounce rate
C) Impressions
D) ROI
Correct Answer: C) Impressions
113. What is “penetration pricing”?
A) Setting high prices to maximize profit
B) Setting low prices to enter the market quickly
C) Matching competitors’ prices
D) Charging different prices for different segments
Correct Answer: B) Setting low prices to enter the market quickly
114. Which of the following best represents a pull strategy?
A) Heavy use of trade promotions
B) Direct contact with retailers
C) Advertising to create consumer demand
D) Aggressive pricing in distribution channels
Correct Answer: C) Advertising to create consumer demand
115. Which concept emphasizes satisfying customer needs better than the competition?
A) Selling concept
B) Product concept
C) Marketing concept
D) Production concept
Correct Answer: C) Marketing concept
116. A product that has high market growth but low market share in the BCG Matrix is called:
A) Star
B) Dog
C) Question Mark
D) Cash Cow
Correct Answer: C) Question Mark
117. What is the main focus of relationship marketing?
A) Reducing prices
B) Maximizing short-term sales
C) Building long-term customer engagement
D) Offering discounts
Correct Answer: C) Building long-term customer engagement
118. What does STP stand for in marketing?
A) Strategy, Targeting, Promotion
B) Segmentation, Targeting, Positioning
C) Selling, Testing, Pricing
D) Sales, Trade, Pricing
Correct Answer: B) Segmentation, Targeting, Positioning
119. In the AIDA model, “D” stands for:
A) Decision
B) Demand
C) Desire
D) Distribution
Correct Answer: C) Desire
120. Which of these best describes value-based pricing?
A) Setting prices based on production costs
B) Charging prices based on customer perceptions of value
C) Offering the lowest prices in the market
D) Matching competitor prices
Correct Answer: B) Charging prices based on customer perceptions of value
121. Which of the following refers to non-personal communication through paid media?
A) Personal selling
B) Public relations
C) Direct marketing
D) Advertising
Correct Answer: D) Advertising
122. The stage in the buying process where a customer evaluates alternatives is called:
A) Purchase decision
B) Information search
C) Evaluation of alternatives
D) Post-purchase behavior
Correct Answer: C) Evaluation of alternatives
123. Which of the following is NOT a type of market segmentation?
A) Geographic
B) Demographic
C) Situational
D) Behavioral
Correct Answer: C) Situational
124. Which one is an example of cause-related marketing?
A) Launching a premium product
B) Sponsoring a celebrity
C) Partnering with an NGO for a social cause
D) Launching a referral program
Correct Answer: C) Partnering with an NGO for a social cause
125. A product’s core benefit refers to:
A) The tangible packaging
B) The basic need it satisfies
C) Its pricing strategy
D) The physical features
Correct Answer: B) The basic need it satisfies
126. In B2B marketing, the buying decision is usually:
A) Emotional
B) Impulsive
C) Rational and committee-based
D) Based on celebrity endorsements
Correct Answer: C) Rational and committee-based
127. Brand equity is best defined as:
A) The number of employees in a brand team
B) The value added to a product by its brand name
C) The cost of producing a product
D) A company’s share value
Correct Answer: B) The value added to a product by its brand name
128. A company that focuses on serving one specific segment very well is using:
A) Mass marketing
B) Undifferentiated marketing
C) Concentrated marketing
D) Differentiated marketing
Correct Answer: C) Concentrated marketing
129. In marketing research, secondary data refers to:
A) Data collected for a new study
B) Customer feedback forms
C) Previously collected data for another purpose
D) Data from the product life cycle
Correct Answer: C) Previously collected data for another purpose
130. Which type of innovation refers to minor improvements to existing products?
A) Radical innovation
B) Disruptive innovation
C) Incremental innovation
D) Blue ocean innovation
Correct Answer: C) Incremental innovation
131. Which of the following best defines a brand?
A. A logo used in advertising
B. A company's legal name
C. A name, term, design, or symbol that identifies and differentiates a product
D. A product sold in multiple countries
Correct Answer: C) A name, term, design, or symbol that identifies and differentiates a product
132. Brand equity refers to:
A. The cost of creating a new brand
B. The value added to a product by its brand name
C. The number of products a company sells
D. The legal ownership of a brand
Correct Answer: B) The value added to a product by its brand name
133. Which of the following is not an element of brand identity?
A. Brand name
B. Packaging design
C. Market share
D. Logo
Correct Answer: C) Market share
134. What is the primary goal of brand positioning?
A. To increase production capacity
B. To determine product pricing
C. To establish a unique place in the minds of consumers
D. To reduce advertising costs
Correct Answer: C) To establish a unique place in the minds of consumers
135. Which branding strategy involves using the same brand name for a range of products?
A. Individual branding
B. Co-branding
C. Umbrella branding
D. Private branding
Correct Answer: C) Umbrella branding
136. A brand that is owned and marketed by a retailer is called a:
A. National brand
B. Generic brand
C. Private label brand
D. Corporate brand
Correct Answer: C) Private label brand
137. What does the term "brand loyalty" describe?
A. The number of brands a customer purchases
B. The legal protection of a brand
C. The consistent preference for one brand over competitors
D. The total market value of a brand
Correct Answer: C) The consistent preference for one brand over competitors
138. Which of the following is most closely associated with brand awareness?
A. Customer retention rates
B. The recognition and recall of a brand
C. Market penetration
D. Brand profitability
Correct Answer: B) The recognition and recall of a brand
139. Which branding strategy combines two or more well-known brands to market a new product?
A. Dual branding
B. Family branding
C. Brand licensing
D. Co-branding
Correct Answer: D) Co-branding
140. What does the term "brand personality" refer to?
A. The appearance of a product's packaging
B. The founder's style and values
C. The set of human characteristics associated with a brand
D. The voice used in brand advertisements
Correct Answer: C) The set of human characteristics associated with a brand
141. A brand audit primarily aims to:
A. Increase sales quickly
B. Evaluate the financial status of a company
C. Assess the brand’s current position and effectiveness
D. Create a new product line
Correct Answer: C) Assess the brand’s current position and effectiveness
142. Which of the following can diminish brand equity over time?
A. Consistent brand messaging
B. High-quality customer experiences
C. Brand dilution
D. Effective positioning
Correct Answer: C) Brand dilution
143. A “brand mantra” is best described as:
A. A company's mission statement
B. A three- to five-word phrase that captures the brand's essence
C. A pricing slogan
D. A promotional catchphrase
Correct Answer: B) A three- to five-word phrase that captures the brand's essence
144. Which type of branding focuses on promoting the values and personality of the organization itself?
A. Product branding
B. Corporate branding
C. Co-branding
D. Retail branding
Correct Answer: B) Corporate branding
145. In the brand resonance model, the highest level is:
A. Brand imagery
B. Brand judgment
C. Brand salience
D. Brand resonance
Correct Answer: D) Brand resonance
146. Which of the following is a risk of brand extension?
A. Increased advertising exposure
B. Brand dilution
C. Market share increase
D. Greater shelf space
Correct Answer: B) Brand dilution
147. The unique benefit or feature that differentiates a brand from competitors is called the:
A. Brand story
B. Brand portfolio
C. Unique selling proposition (USP)
D. Brand equity index
Correct Answer: C) Unique selling proposition (USP)
148. Which of the following best describes rebranding?
A. Registering a trademark
B. Changing the product formula
C. Revamping the brand’s image, name, logo, or positioning
D. Increasing the price of a product
Correct Answer: C) Revamping the brand’s image, name, logo, or positioning
149. What does “brand consistency” refer to?
A. Launching new products under a different name
B. Changing logos frequently
C. Maintaining a uniform message and style across all brand touchpoints
D. Targeting different segments with different messages
Correct Answer: C) Maintaining a uniform message and style across all brand touchpoints
150. Which of the following is an example of brand extension?
A. Creating a new logo for an existing product
B. Introducing a new flavor of an existing snack
C. Using an established brand name to launch a new product in a different category
D. Lowering the price of a branded product
Correct Answer: C) Using an established brand name to launch a new product in a different category
151. What is the primary function of canonical tags in SEO?
A. To increase keyword density
B. To resolve duplicate content issues
C. To prioritize paid search results
D. To generate backlinks
Correct Answer: B) To resolve duplicate content issues
152. In Google Ads, what does an "exact match" keyword modifier do?
A. Shows ads for all variations of a keyword
B. Shows ads only for the exact query or close variants
C. Broadens the search query
D. Matches only long-tail keywords
Correct Answer: B) Shows ads only for the exact query or close variants
153. Which attribution model assigns all conversion credit to the first touchpoint?
A. Last-click
B. Linear
C. First-click
D. Time decay
Correct Answer: C) First-click
154. What does E-A-T stand for in Google's search quality guidelines?
A. Expertise, Authority, Trust
B. Engagement, Audience, Traffic
C. Experience, Accessibility, Trust
D. Efficiency, Accuracy, Transparency
Correct Answer: A) Expertise, Authority, Trust
155. Which HTTP status code tells search engines that a page has been permanently moved?
A. 301
B. 302
C. 404
D. 500
Correct Answer: A) 301
156. What does a high bounce rate typically indicate on a landing page?
A. Excellent engagement
B. Long session duration
C. Poor user experience or irrelevant content
D. High conversion rate
Correct Answer: C) Poor user experience or irrelevant content
157. Which of the following is not a valid UTM parameter?
A. utm_content
B. utm_price
C. utm_campaign
D. utm_source
Correct Answer: B) utm_price
158. In A/B testing, which statistical measure is most commonly used to determine significance?
A. Variance
B. Correlation
C. P-value
D. Standard deviation
Correct Answer: C) P-value
159. Which of the following ad types uses machine learning to automatically adjust asset combinations?
A. Responsive Search Ads
B. Expanded Text Ads
C. Display Banners
D. Native Ads
Correct Answer: A) Responsive Search Ads
160. What is the purpose of a lookalike audience in Facebook Ads?
A. To retarget past visitors
B. To match competitor audiences
C. To reach new people similar to your existing customers
D. To segment warm leads
Correct Answer: C) To reach new people similar to your existing customers
161. What is a major benefit of using a Customer Data Platform (CDP)?
A. Enhances backlinks
B. Consolidates customer data from multiple sources
C. Reduces server load
D. Optimizes ad creative
Correct Answer: B) Consolidates customer data from multiple sources
162. Which JavaScript library is commonly used for tracking events in Google Tag Manager?
A. jQuery
B. dataLayer
C. React
D. Bootstrap
Correct Answer: B) dataLayer
163. Which GDPR article focuses on the right to be forgotten?
A. Article 13
B. Article 6
C. Article 17
D. Article 25
Correct Answer: C) Article 17
164. What is “programmatic advertising”?
A. Manual ad placement on websites
B. Real-time buying of ad inventory using algorithms
C. Placing ads via email lists
D. Scheduling organic posts
Correct Answer: B) Real-time buying of ad inventory using algorithms
165. Which type of schema markup is used to enhance product listings in search results?
A. Review schema
B. Article schema
C. Product schema
D. Breadcrumb schema
Correct Answer: C) Product schema
166. What does the “robots.txt” file control?
A. Image file compression
B. Redirect behavior
C. Crawler access to site content
D. Page speed optimization
Correct Answer: C) Crawler access to site content
167. Which of the following KPIs is most relevant for evaluating email campaign engagement?
A. Click-through rate
B. Delivery rate
C. Unsubscribe rate
D. Bounce rate
Correct Answer: A) Click-through rate
168. Which bidding strategy in Google Ads maximizes conversion value within a budget?
A. Maximize clicks
B. Target CPA
C. Maximize conversion value
D. Target ROAS
Correct Answer: C) Maximize conversion value
169. In content marketing, what is a “pillar page”?
A. A product description page
B. A blog post focused on a single long-tail keyword
C. A comprehensive content hub that links to related subtopics
D. An FAQ page
Correct Answer: C) A comprehensive content hub that links to related subtopics
170. What’s the typical frequency range for remarketing ads to avoid fatigue?
A. 1–2 times/day
B. 5–10 times/hour
C. 3–5 times/week
D. 10–20 times/month
Correct Answer: A) 1–2 times/day
171. What is a DMP (Data Management Platform) used for?
A. Email automation
B. Inventory tracking
C. Audience segmentation and ad targeting
D. CRM integration
Correct Answer: C) Audience segmentation and ad targeting
172. What is the primary difference between GA4 and Universal Analytics?
A. GA4 is mobile-only
B. GA4 uses session-based tracking
C. GA4 uses event-based tracking
D. GA4 is not compatible with eCommerce
Correct Answer: C) GA4 uses event-based tracking
173. Which HTTP header is commonly used for cross-domain tracking?
A. Content-Type
B. Referrer-Policy
C. Access-Control-Allow-Origin
D. Cache-Control
Correct Answer: C) Access-Control-Allow-Origin
174. Which algorithm update penalized thin content and content farms?
A. Penguin
B. Panda
C. Hummingbird
D. RankBrain
Correct Answer: B) Panda
175. What is a typical use for heatmaps in CRO?
A. Load time optimization
B. Identifying ad positions
C. Understanding user behavior on a page
D. Link-building strategy
Correct Answer: C) Understanding user behavior on a page
176. What is the significance of dwell time in SEO?
A. A factor in Google’s paid ads algorithm
B. The time a user spends on a page before bouncing
C. Time a bot spends crawling a page
D. Domain registration period
Correct Answer: B) Time a user spends on a page before bouncing
177. What tool allows you to inspect and debug schema markup on your site?
A. Google Analytics
B. Google Tag Manager
C. Structured Data Testing Tool
D. PageSpeed Insights
Correct Answer: C) Structured Data Testing Tool
178. What is a common KPI for affiliate marketing performance?
A. Domain Authority
B. Cost per Acquisition (CPA)
C. CPM
D. Crawl budget
Correct Answer: B) Cost per Acquisition (CPA)
179. Which type of ad fraud involves hidden ads or ads behind content?
A. Pixel stuffing
B. Impression stacking
C. Cookie stuffing
D. Click injection
Correct Answer: A) Pixel stuffing
180. What is the purpose of negative keywords in PPC campaigns?
A. To increase impressions
B. To improve CTR
C. To prevent ads from showing for irrelevant queries
D. To increase keyword match types
Correct Answer: C) To prevent ads from showing for irrelevant queries
181. What does “view-through conversion” measure?
A. Conversion after a user clicks an ad
B. Conversion after ad interaction with multiple touchpoints
C. Conversion after seeing, but not clicking, an ad
D. View count of a video ad
Correct Answer: C) Conversion after seeing, but not clicking, an ad
182. Which of the following is an advanced method for backlink analysis?
A. Mobile-friendly testing
B. Log file analysis
C. Keyword planner
D. Disavow tool
Correct Answer: B) Log file analysis
183. What is a key limitation of third-party cookies in 2025 and beyond?
A. They only work on HTTPS websites
B. They are being deprecated in most major browsers
C. They have no privacy risks
D. They do not store session data
Correct Answer: B) They are being deprecated in most major browsers
184. Which of these tools uses machine learning for personalization on e-commerce sites?
A. Google PageSpeed
B. Hotjar
C. Dynamic Yield
D. Screaming Frog
Correct Answer: C) Dynamic Yield
185. Which term refers to the delay between an ad impression and conversion?
A. Attribution lag
B. Conversion funnel
C. Click delay
D. Latency window
Correct Answer: A) Attribution lag
186. What is the main objective of a "drip campaign" in email marketing?
A. Send one-off newsletters
B. Automate a series of targeted emails over time
C. Promote only discount offers
D. A/B test open rates
Correct Answer: B) Automate a series of targeted emails over time
187. Which platform uses the SKAdNetwork for ad attribution?
A. Google Ads
B. LinkedIn
C. Apple iOS apps
D. Amazon Ads
Correct Answer: C) Apple iOS apps
188. What is the optimal character limit for meta descriptions according to current SEO standards?
A. 80–100
B. 120–140
C. 150–160
D. 200–220
Correct Answer: C) 150–160
189. Which concept defines the number of people reached divided by total impressions?
A. CTR
B. CPM
C. Frequency
D. Reach ratio
Correct Answer: D) Reach ratio
190. Which email authentication method helps prevent domain spoofing?
A. SPF
B. CSV
C. HTML
D. VPN
Correct Answer: A) SPF
191. What’s the primary function of a marketing automation platform?
A. Hosting landing pages
B. Sending scheduled content and managing workflows
C. Measuring offline conversion
D. Enhancing CMS security
Correct Answer: B) Sending scheduled content and managing workflows
192. What does the term “dark social” refer to in digital marketing?
A. Anonymous blog traffic
B. Traffic from encrypted apps like WhatsApp or Messenger
C. SEO from deep web pages
D. Ads on hidden forums
Correct Answer: B) Traffic from encrypted apps like WhatsApp or Messenger
193. What metric best indicates profitability in a paid campaign?
A. CPC
B. ROAS
C. CTR
D. CPM
Correct Answer: B) ROAS
194. In Google Ads, what is Quality Score not directly based on?
A. CTR
B. Landing page experience
C. Ad relevance
D. Campaign budget
Correct Answer: D) Campaign budget
195. Which SEO tactic is considered a black-hat technique?
A. Guest posting
B. Link farming
C. Schema markup
D. Internal linking
Correct Answer: B) Link farming
196. What is the primary benefit of using server-side tagging over client-side?
A. More browser compatibility
B. Faster client processing
C. Improved data control and privacy
D. Easier to install plugins
Correct Answer: C) Improved data control and privacy
197. Which type of segmentation is not commonly used in email marketing?
A. Behavioral
B. Geographic
C. Psychographic
D. Hardware-based
Correct Answer: D) Hardware-based
198. What metric measures the number of users who visit a page and leave without action?
A. Exit rate
B. Abandonment rate
C. Bounce rate
D. Scroll depth
Correct Answer: C) Bounce rate
199. Which tool allows direct integration with CRM platforms for B2B lead nurturing?
A. Google Trends
B. Moz
C. Salesforce Pardot
D. Screaming Frog
Correct Answer: C) Salesforce Pardot
200. What is a “data lake” in the context of digital analytics?
A. A structured data warehouse
B. A raw repository for unstructured data from various sources
C. A shallow database
D. A pool of CRM contacts
Correct Answer: B) A raw repository for unstructured data from various sources
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